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Economics Business and Finance
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Economics Business and Finance
1
Business can be defined as:
A
Selling of goods
B
Buying of goods
C
A market place
D
Trade commerce and industry
2
What can be the maximum number of partners in a partnership firm?
A
10
B
15
C
20
D
25
3
Which form of business organisation would be most suitable for a capital intensive business?
A
Sole proprietorship
B
Partnership
C
Co-operative society
D
Joint-stock company
4
According to the systems approach a system is the:
A
Sum total of all its components
B
Orderly arrangement of its components in a coordinated manner
C
A combination of some of the components
D
A systemic view of the organisation
5
A business organistion has constant and invisible interaction with its:
A
Employees
B
Suppliers and customers
C
External environment
D
Government
6
The asset limit above which a company or group would be covered under the MRTP in India for concentration of economic power is:
A
Rs 50 lakh
B
Rs 1 crore
C
Rs 20 crore
D
Rs 100 crore
7
Which one of the following refers to factoring services?
A
Guaranteeing realisation from debtors
B
Financing working capital
C
Providing project consultancy
D
None of the above
8
A consumer complaint is registered by the MRTP Commission in India on a complaint made by at least:
A
5 consumers
B
25 consumers
C
50 consumers
D
100 consumers
9
Vertical combination implies:
A
Formation of pools and cartels
B
Integration of enterprises engaged in different stages of production of a particular product
C
A group 01 organisations having common sales set-up
D
Integration of enterprises engaged in manufacturing similar products
10
An indirect tax is one where:
A
Tax is levied on wealth
B
Tax is levied always on products
C
Points of impact and incidence are the same
D
Points of impact and incidence are different
11
Which one of the following is an example of indirect tax?
A
Corporation tax
B
Wealth tax
C
Income tax
D
Sales tax
12
The incidence of tax refers to:
A
The effect produced by the tax
B
The rate of taxation
C
One who bears the ultimate money burden of the tax
D
One who is immediately responsible to pay the tax
13
Who is generally regarded as the father of modern management?
A
F.W.Taylor
B
Henry Fayol
C
James D.Mooney
D
Alan C. Reiley
14
The term Managerical Rovolution refers to the prediction that with the expansion in size of business units world affairs will eventually be in the hands of a few powerful managers. Who made use of this term?
A
J.Burnham
B
F.W.Taylor
C
Alfred Marshall
D
J.K.Galbraith
15
The principle of scientific management implies:
A
Replacement of rules of thumb by scientific principles of management
B
Managing business in a scientific way
C
Use of science in business
D
Human approach to management
16
Objectives in the context of management may be defined as:
A
Laying down targets to be achieved over a period of time
B
The end result which an organisation tries to attain
C
The purpose for the organizations survival
D
Parameters for unified planning
17
The two key factors in management by objectives are:
A
Performance evaluation and objectives
B
Democratic goal-setting and verifiable objectives
C
Systems approach and long-range planning
D
Short-run goods and flexibility
18
An informal organisation is one where:
A
There is no division of work
B
Jobs of individuals are not precisely defined
C
The structure is not prescribed by formal authority
D
There are no fixed hours of work
19
The first level of needs in Maslows need hierarchy is:
A
Social needs
B
Security needs
C
Physiological needs
D
Esteem needs
20
Planning and control are related in such a way that:
A
Planning precedes control
B
Control precedes planning
C
Both are concurrent
D
Both go hand-in-hand with each other in a cyclical manner
21
Communication is complete when the:
A
Message is sent by the sender
B
Message is received by the receiver
C
Message is received and understood by the receiver
D
Message is further transmitted by the receiver
22
A private company must have at least:
A
2 members
B
5 members
C
7 members
D
10 members
23
Unless the Articles of Association otherwise provide the quorum for a general meeting of a public company is:
A
One-third of the total members
B
Five members personally present
C
Seven members personally present
D
Twenty members personally present
24
A Special resolution is one which is passed in a general meeting by:
A
A simple majority of votes
B
Two-third majority of votes
C
Three-fourth majority of votes
D
Three-fifth majority of votes
25
A share warrant can be issued by:
A
Private companies only
B
Public companies only
C
Both public and private companies
D
Government companies only
26
What is the minimum number of shareholders necessary for a public company?
A
5
B
7
C
11
D
20
27
The share capital of a company refers to:
A
Equity share capital
B
Preference share capital
C
Equity and preference share capital
D
Equity and preference share capital and debentures
28
Within how many days of the declaration of divident must divident warrants be posted to shareholders?
A
21 days
B
30 days
C
42 days
D
60 days
29
In which year was the Indian Contract Act passed?
A
1850
B
1872
C
1926
D
1939
30
Any agreement by a minor which is beneficial to him is a:
A
Void agreement
B
Illegal agreement
C
Valid contract
D
Void contract
31
The liability of partners in a partnership firm is:
A
Joint and several
B
Joint and alternative
C
Alternative
D
Joint
32
What is the maximum number of partners necessary in a partnership firm carrying on banking business?
A
5
B
10
C
15
D
20
33
The suit for specific performance in case of breach of contract may be filed only where the subject matter relates to:
A
Movable goods
B
Immovable property
C
Perishable goods
D
Personal skill and qualifications
34
Which one of the following is a void agreement?
A
Agreement in restraint of trade
B
Agreement whose object is illegal
C
Agreement in respect of sale of goodwill
D
Service agreements containing negative stipulations during the tenure of service
35
Crossing a cheque Not Negotiable affords security against:
A
Negotiation of cheque
B
The ft of cheque
C
Payment to wrong banker or account
D
None of the above
36
Non-registration of a partnership does not affect the:
A
Suit by a partner against the firm or other co-partners
B
Suit by the firm against third parties
C
Suit by third parties against the firm
D
Claim of set-off or other proceedings on a contract by the firm
37
Organisation Theory is concerned with the:
A
Development of an organisation as an economic unit
B
Study to explain the nature and composition of organisations as a social or human group
C
Rules governing an organisation
D
Human behaviour at work
38
With which of following is Behavioural Science in management related?
A
Organizational response to its environment
B
Scientific study of human behaviour
C
Superior-subordinate behaviour within an organisation
D
None of the above
39
Job-enrichment means:
A
More tasks of the same general nature
B
More tasks providing greater challenge
C
Change or variation of job after a time perior
D
None of the above
40
An organisation structure refers to the:
A
Nature of superior-subordinate relationship
B
Relationships and dependencies within an organisation
C
Extent of delegation of authority in the organisation
D
Flow of authority and responsibility
41
Finance is concerned with:
A
Arrangement of funds
B
Identification of sources of funds
C
Recording utilisation of funds
D
All of the above
42
Current Ratio is the ratio of:
A
Current assets to current liabilities
B
Current liabilities to current assets
C
Fixed assets to total liabilities
D
Current assets to total liabilities
43
Debt Equity Ratio refers to the ratio of:
A
Debtors to equity share capital
B
Long term debt to shareholders equity
C
Total debt to equity share capital
D
Long term debt to equity share capital
44
Trading on eqrity means:
A
Use of equity share capital for trade financing
B
Use of fixed-interest borrowed funds for getting a higher return on equity
C
Having no borrowed funds
D
Trading in equity share capital
45
Cost of goods sold refers to:
A
Sales minus gross profits
B
Sales minus profits
C
Cost of materials labour and overheads
D
None of the above
46
In the pay back period method of capital budgeting investment is divided by:
A
Annual profits
B
Return on investment
C
Constant annual cash flow
D
Cumulative cash flow
47
The relationship between EBIT and EPS gives:
A
Operating leverage
B
Financial leverage
C
Nornal leverage
D
Composite leverage
48
Break-even-point is a situation where:
A
Profits are negative
B
There is no profit no loss
C
Profits-Costs
D
Business is at the point of dissolution
49
Under-capitalisation refers to a situation where:
A
The capital base is larger for the earnings made
B
The capital base does not justify the amount of earnings made and needs to be enhanced
C
The capital base justifies the earnings made
D
The earnings ratio of the company equals the industrys earnings ratio
50
A schedule of balances drawn from the ledger is called:
A
A trial balance
B
A balance sheet
C
A profit and loss account
D
A statement of account
51
Goodwill of a firm represents:
A
Fixed assets
B
Tangible assets
C
Intangible assets
D
Fictitious assets
52
Under-capitalisation refers to a situation where:
A
The capital base is larger for the earnings made
B
The capital base does not justify the amount of earnings made and needs to be enhanced
C
The capital base justifies the earnings made
D
The earnings ratio of the company equals the industrys earnings ratio
53
Goodwill of a firm represents:
A
Fixed assets
B
Tangible assets
C
Intangible assets
D
Fictitious assets
54
A bank account is a:
A
Personal account
B
Real account
C
Liability account
D
Nominal account
55
Prepaid expenses appearing in a trial balance will figure in the:
A
Balance sheet
B
Profit and loss account
C
Profit and loss account and balance sheet
D
Prepaid expenses account
56
Sale of old furniture on credit will appear in the:
A
Sales day book
B
Cash book
C
Journal
D
Debtors ledger
57
The excess of current assets over current liabilities is called:
A
Net worth
B
Working capital
C
Net tangible worth
D
Turnover
58
Depreciation is the process of:
A
Allocation of costs
B
Valuation of assets
C
Use of assets
D
None of the above
59
What is the objective of cost accounting?
A
Cost determination
B
Cost analysis
C
Cost control
D
All of the above
60
What is Conersion Cost?
A
Cost of materials and labour
B
Cost of transforming direct materials into finished products
C
Cost of labour
D
Total cost of running business
61
In an integrated costing system most of the data relevant to cost accounting comes from the:
A
Cost accounting system
B
Financial accounting system
C
Stores accounting system
D
Sales and distribution system V H-
62
Which method of costing is used by sugar mills?
A
Unit or output costing
B
Job costing
C
Process costing
D
Batch costing
63
Premium on redemption of debentures is accounted for in the:
A
Personal account
B
Real account
C
Nominal account
D
Assets account
64
After debentures are redeemed the balance in the sinking fund account is transferred to:
A
Capital reserve
B
General reserve
C
Profit and loss account
D
Secret reserve
65
To the extent redemption of preferece shares takes place out of profits an equal amount has to be transferred to:
A
Development rebate reserve
B
Capital redemption reserve
C
General reserve
D
Share premium account
66
When shares are forfeited the share capital account is debited by:
A
Calls-in-arrears
B
Called-up-amount
C
Paid-up amount
D
Face value of shares
67
The profit on re-issuing forfeited shares is transferred to:
A
Capital reserve
B
Capital redumption reserve
C
General reserve
D
Revaluation reserve
68
The share application account is a:
A
Real account
B
Personal account
C
Nominal account
D
Asset account
69
The excess of purchase price over net assets is:
A
Goodwill
B
Capital reserve
C
Preliminary expense
D
Revenue reserve
70
In the balance sheet of a company the items goodwill patents and trade marks are shown under the heading:
A
Current assets
B
Loans and advances
C
Fixed assets
D
Investments
71
A preliminary expense is a:
A
Current asset
B
Fictitious asset
C
Current liability
D
Non-current liability
72
Divisible profits do not include:
A
Reserve fund
B
Profit on revaluation of assets
C
Post-incorporation profits
D
None of the above
73
Advance payment of tax should be shown on the:
A
Assets side of a balance sheet
B
Liabilities side of a balance sheet
C
Debit side of a profit and loss account
D
Credit side of a profit and loss account
74
Dividends are usually paid on the:
A
Called-up capital
B
Paid-up capital
C
Subscribed capital
D
Nominal capital
75
When two or more companies dissolve to form a new company the process is known as:
A
Amalgamation
B
Absorption
C
Reconstruction
D
Combination
76
Absorption is said to take place when:
A
A company is formed to take over another company
B
Two or more companies are dissolved to form a few company
C
Two or more companies dissolve to be taken over by a existing company
D
Two companies decide for virtual integration of their operations
77
For calculating market value using P/E ratios it is necessary to know:
A
The rate of dividend
B
Average profits
C
Market price of the share
D
Earnings per share and market price of the share
78
The relationship between normal rate of return and P/E ratio is:
A
Inverse
B
Direct
C
Irregular
D
None of the above
79
For a company to carry out capital reduction permission is required from the:
A
Controller of Capital Issues
B
Competent Court
C
Company Law Board
D
Board of Directors
80
Any balance in the capital reduction account after writing off lost capital is tansferred to:
A
Capital reserve
B
General reserve
C
Debenture redemption reserve
D
Capital redemption reserve
81
In a scheme of reorganization the amount of shares surrendered by shareholders is transferred to the:
A
Shares surrendered account
B
Capital reduction account
C
Capital reorganization account
D
Capital sacrificed account
82
Amounts sacrificed by shareholders are credited to the:
A
Capital reserve account
B
General reserve account
C
Capital reduction account
D
Capital redemption reserve account
83
At the commencement of winding up a contributory is a:
A
Creditor
B
Debtor
C
Shareholder
D
Debenture holder
84
The shareholding of the government in a government company must be at least:
A
33%
B
50%
C
51%
D
100%
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